April 27th, 2022 by G.
- Rebekah’s relation to Isaac–they are first cousins once removed, right?
Genesis 24:15, a couple of other scriptures.
2. Why would ex-slaves require such detailed instructions on owning slaves?
Exodus 21 is the chapter right after the ten commandments. It has detailed instructions for the law on holding slaves. Verses 1-11, 20-21, 26, and 32. Why? Would the Hebrew slaves have owned a bunch of slaves? It is possible. I get the impression that they were held collectively in bondage but not necessarily individually, which means that as individuals some of them might have owned slaves among themselves. The other possibility is that as ex-slaves they had a bunch of opinions on how slavery should be managed.
3. Exodus 21:20-21, am I reading this right?
And if a man smite his servant, or his maid, with a rod, and he die under his hand; he shall be surely punished.
Notwithstanding, if he continue a day or two, he shall not be punished: for he is his money.
I am reading it to say that there is a punishment for killing your slave. Not death, but a punishment. But if you maul the slave but the slave doesn’t die right away, they linger on for a day or two, then no punishment. Because the money you lose when the slave dies is itself the punishment.
Now, obviously, the world of the Old Testament is very foreign to ours. That’s one of the reasons I have been saying ‘slave’ instead of ‘servant,’ to make the differences more clear. And obviously having a different scale of punishments for offenses against servants/slaves was pretty standard in various areas of the ancient world. Anglo-Saxon law, for instance. Still, the idea that masters can be trusted to treat their slaves well because of the money they have invested in them is a remarkably libertarian view. I.e., probably false.